Friday, February 28, 2014

Redhat VM Inventory PowerCli Script

Here i'm sharing one of the PowerCli script for Inventorying Redhat VMs in my VM environment. use connect-viserver with vcenter and then run this script.

if ( $args.length -ne 1)
{
   echo "Usage: .\rhelinventory.ps1 [filename.csv]"
   echo "Example: .\rhelinventory.ps1 report101.csv"
   exit
}

$table = New-Object system.Data.DataTable "Results"
$col1 = New-Object system.Data.DataColumn Name,([string])
$col2 = New-Object system.Data.DataColumn OS,([string])
$col3 = New-Object system.Data.DataColumn Cluster,([string])
$table.columns.add($col1)
$table.columns.add($col2)
$table.columns.add($col3)

Get-View -ViewType VirtualMachine -Property Config.GuestFullName -Filter @{"Config.Template" = "false";"Config.GuestId"="rhel*"}| Select-Object @{n="ConfigdGuestFullName"; e={$_.Config.GuestFullName}} | Group-Object -NoElement ConfigdGuestFullName | Sort-Object Name | Format-Table -AutoSize

"Be Patient While Script is running.."

$vms=Get-View -ViewType VirtualMachine -Property Name, Config.GuestId -Filter @{"Config.Template" = "false" ; "Config.GuestId" = "rhel*"}|Select Name, @{n="ConfigdGuestId"; e={$_.Config.GuestId}}

foreach ($vm in $vms)
{
$row = $table.NewRow()
  $row.Name = $vm.Name
  $row.OS = $vm.ConfigdGuestId
  $row.Cluster= (Get-Cluster -vm $vm.Name)
  $table.Rows.Add($row)
}

$table | Format-Table

$table | Export-Csv -path $args[0]

Be Social.

Thursday, February 27, 2014

VM/VMX tweaks, View config tool, securing VMware infra and SSh automation

Back to learning/examination mode for cracking the Heavyweight VCAP5-DCA exam in 2nd Attempt. But still have some time lurking over the internet for Virtualization related posts. while browsing through feedly, this particular article caught-up my attention Cheating Could Lead to Better Creativity,i also agreed on this point after reading this article and i recommend this to everyone.

Sharing some of the interesting links for both you and I.

1)VM/VMX Tweaks for disabling "removable hardware icon"-using GPO, Powercli or Manual Editing.
http://www.v-front.de/2014/02/various-ways-to-address-safely-remove.html

http://uszaim.wordpress.com/2012/09/18/script-to-edit-vmx-file-disabling-the-hotaddhotplug-capability-in-esxi/

2)Securing Virtual infrastructure from Attacks and outside threats-very valuable info
http://vsphere-land.com/news/the-importance-of-securing-your-virtual-world.html

3)Automating SSH login locally or through vCenter Client using Plugin and Putty Suite
http://www.virten.net/2014/02/howto-esxi-ssh-public-key-authentication/

http://www.vmdude.fr/en/news-en/sshautoconnect-vcenter-plugin/

4)VMware Labs released a new tool - Horizon View configuration tool
http://labs.vmware.com/flings/horizon-view-configuration-tool

http://download3.vmware.com/software/vmw-tools/horizonview/VMware_Horizon_View_Configuration_Tool_v1.0_Quick_Start_Guide.pdf

5)Bonus- vSphere Network troubleshooting mindmap
https://communities.vmware.com/docs/DOC-9876

Be Social and spread the knowledge.

Wednesday, February 26, 2014

VCAP5-DCA failed first attempt, Preparing for 2nd shot

Today i got result (Failed :-( ) from vmware education for VCAP5-DCA exam, taken on 13 Feb 2014, i was preparing for this exam secretly and i was very curious about this exam. i've been reading VCAP-DCA exam takers review/feedback and became more determined towards experiencing this exam myself. Then i thought of improvising VMware 2nd shot exam offer (which valid between Oct'13 till 31 Mar 2014), So, if i failed in my first attempt, i'm still good to go for free 2nd attempt before 31st March 2014. but, take my word this exam is really tough and requires good practical knowledge of deploying/managing/troubleshooting VMware Infrastructures. this exam checks each and everything related to VMware (ESXi, Auto Deploy, Image profile, esxCli, vMA, PowerCLI etc.) list is endless and if you check the blueprint (req. mylearn login) you'll find around 300 things to master before sitting for the exam and i bet, even experienced people will get some gotcha's in this exam. In my opinion every IT exam should be like this (drag & drop, multiple choice, true/false are now old fashioned and easy to crack). but i really respect VMware Education people to come-up with such a great concept for recognizing true VMware Data Center Administration. However my exam experience was really good (yes, there was lag in Lab) but no other issues at all. i got 4 hours 30 minutes (extra 30 min. for non-english country) to complete 26 questions with mixed difficulty and during this period you can't take any break (if you take break for loo or anything, you will loose precious time). Be prepared for holding your hunger, nature call or addiction (smoking, coffee etc.) for 4 hour 30 min. Another thing that need to keep in mind is exam is completely based on ESXi 5.0, so if you're working on ESXi 5.1 or higher, forget that knowledge while preparing/giving this Exam. After hearing my experience, one of my colleague also booked the exam for experiencing the thrilling experience (troubleshooting/configuration marathon). Also Don't take any energy drinks (Gatorade, Monster or Red bull) for passing this exam you don't require wings. Jokes apart, yesterday i started my endeavour to unleash the 2nd shot offer, because getting a perfect time slot for exam is very hard and this particular exam is available on very few Pearson VUE centers (in Bangalore, only 2 centers). Logged into www.pearsonvue.com/vmware selected VCAP5-DCA from list of my pre-approved exams (yes, you need to get prior approval from VMware Education for sitting in advanced level exams) and selected 2 designated center, selected date/time slot available and proceed to checkout. when i inputed the Voucher code for 2nd shot offer "ADV103", website thrown an error.
After getting this error, only option left for is to report the same to Pearson VUE customer care "0008004401837 or +852 3077 4923 from (9:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m. AEST ) Monday to Friday" and got reference number and emailed them with my Failed result pdf file as attachment  to pvapcustomerservice [at] pearson.com, there SLA for such issues is 2-3 days, now waiting for there reply/resolution. 

Tuesday, February 25, 2014

Watchout these spaces on the internet

If you're like me, then you definitely keep an eye on blogosphere or internet for technological updates (i'm not talking about new android phone launch). Recently i was reading technet blog, MS technet blog to be precise (i follow Microsoft technology as well), Hyper-V is gaining too much momentum, that is the reason i'm also taking hyper-v version 3 seriously. If you're completely stuck with VMware, you can follow Mike laverick's blog http://www.mikelaverick.com/category/microsoft/ , his blog posts are very interesting  and detailed without Partiallity and another blog which recommed is aidan finn's blog http://www.aidanfinn.com/.

if you want to take plunge into vmware powercli, you can watch out below link from alan renouf's blog for introductory video and forthcoming videos.
http://www.virtu-al.net/2014/02/24/introduction-powercli/

If you like above mentioned blogs and don't forget to cast your vote for "favorite vmware & virtualization blog" http://vsphere-land.com/news/voting-now-open-for-the-2014-top-vmware-virtualization-blogs.html

Top 20 issue reported on vcenter 5.5 (if you implemented in you're production env.)
http://blogs.vmware.com/kb/2014/02/top-20-vcenter-server-5-5-issues.html

http://cormachogan.com/2014/02/25/a-list-of-esxcli-storage-commands-you-cant-live-without/
As you can easily understand from Link above, keep it near you all the time.

have a nice day..

Saturday, February 22, 2014

74-409 Passed

I'm very happy to announce that i successfully passed the exam 74-409, which some people consider tough.
but in my opinion, i would say, my experience was mixed, though some questions are tricky and some are really basic. i  will start from the beginning..As you know i booked my exam on 22 feb 2014, 10 AM. i reached the prometric center at 9:25AM , because 30 min is  required for student on-boarding and prometric center was not open, i called the prometric center phone number, no one picking up. Then i visit prometric website and searched for customer care number, but prometric customer care is available Mon-Fri only, but still you can report a complaint by visiting below URL and clicking on 'register a complaint' link.
https://www.prometric.com/en-us/contact-us/Pages/default.aspx
then i registered my complaint and waited for their return call, but no luck and later at around 10:06 AM, Prometric Center Admin came and opened the center and when i asked him about late opening, he started quarreling with me that every body is Human Being and have some commitments that is the reason he was late and asked me to get photocopy of both identity proofs, i told him that i have given so many exams in prometric and pearson but never took photocopy of my identity proofs. i shown him the rules and regulation for the same from below URL. https://www.prometric.com/en-us/for-test-takers/prepare-for-test-day/frequently-asked-questions/pages/testing-center-regulations.aspx then i thought what is the point in fighting over such issue and calmly went for photocopy. after all this hassle my exam started at around 11:15 AM and when it started i was shocked with only 45 questions and 2 hours. although while booking this free exam allotted time duration was 3 hours 15 min. don't know whether for india they reduced the time and questions or the exam is like that only. please confirm me if that's true for everyone. Some questions were really tricky because this exam is focused towards Hyper-V 2012 R2, but some questions require hyper-v 2008 R2 knowledge as well and don't forget to read DPM, Service Manger, Operation manger and Global Monitor etc. However this exam is free for some time (till vouchers last) and i recommend everyone to take the exam and score good marks (Passing score 700) or if you're not able to score, still you will get good exam experience.

i'm thankful to below bloggers and Microsoft MVA for Invaluable training and resources for helping me prepare for the exam.

1) Study Guide/Blue print from msandbu.wordpress.com
http://msandbu.wordpress.com/2013/11/19/study-resources-74-409-server-virtualization-with-windows-server-hyper-v-and-system-center/

2)Tabular format study guide from bjornhouben.wordpress.com
http://bjornhouben.wordpress.com/2013/12/19/microsoft-preparing-for-free-exam-74-409-server-virtualization-with-windows-server-hyper-v-and-system-center/

3) Canada IT Pro Blog
http://blogs.technet.com/b/canitpro/archive/tags/from+the+ground+up/default.aspx

4)Hyper-V Networking Primer
http://blogs.technet.com/b/cedward/archive/2014/02/22/hyper-v-2012-r2-network-architectures-series-part-1-of-7-introduction.aspx

good luck guys for your upcoming exams..




Friday, February 21, 2014

VCP-Cloud certification Blueprint updated

Recently, VMware Education updated the long holded VCP-Cloud(VCPC550) certification Blueprint. As Per VMware Education website, VCP-Cloud exam will be based on vCAC 5.2 and vCloud Director 5.5.

For downloading Updated blueprint follow the below link:-
https://mylearn.vmware.com/lcms/web/portals/certification/VCP_Blueprints/VCP-Cloud-Exam-Blueprint-v3_0.pdf

older version of exam is also available i.e. VCPC510 (I passed this exam already and upgraded to VCP-Cloud).

Thursday, February 20, 2014

Free Ebooks available and Discount offers from Packt

Go Grab this book..if you want to learn Network virtualization in Windows world.
Below is the description of book chapters, book is divided into 6 chapter's and is available in three downloadable formats. so hurry-up.
http://blogs.technet.com/b/scvmm/archive/2014/02/19/free-ebook-microsoft-system-center-building-a-virtualized-network-solution.aspx

Direct link to download page.
http://blogs.technet.com/b/nymetro/archive/2014/02/19/new-free-ebook-microsoft-system-center-building-a-virtualized-network-solution.aspx

Another good news is 'PacktPub' is also giving heavy discount "Offer of a Lifetime" on ebooks, so grab your favorite VMware titles and Microsoft titles.

http://www.packtpub.com/books/all?utm_source=inr_pricing&utm_medium=homepageblock&utm_campaign=allbooks

Exam prep is going on very well, i will share my exam experience on the same day.. served fresh.


Monday, February 17, 2014

Progress on Projects At Hand

Progress on Projects at hand-this post is for self evaluation of projects progress, i'm making on bi-weekly basis.

Python Learning Project- Stuck at 57%  :-(
Hyper-V Learning - Steady progress- video tutorial finished, reading material also finished, working on Mock exams -5 days left

That's it, Too much work this week also, and assigned with taking telephonic interviews of  Windows/Linux candidates-sometimes it's very interesting job.

with all this tight schedule i still try to catch-up on my feedly RSS reader for some interesting articles, which i will share with you guys.

1)Compendium for VCAP-DCA exam prep
http://sostechblog.com/2014/02/10/vcap5-dca-links/

2)Wanna Prep for VCAP-DCA Lab yourself-here is the definitive guide for you
http://sostechblog.com/2014/02/07/vcap-test-track-lab-on-a-lap/

3)Awesome Tool from HP for VMware admin-
Detailed coverage of HP one View tool and Follow-up from @wahlnetwork
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/Converged-Infrastructure/Finally-an-integrated-tool-based-on-how-I-work/ba-p/154413

Demo Video-http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/enterprise/servers/products/infrastructure-management/index.aspx?demo=demos&jumpid=sc_r186_ww/en/led/tsg/HPOneView-social-demos#.UwI2gfmSzij
Follow-up
http://wahlnetwork.com/2014/02/14/hp-oneview/

4)Deep-Dive on VNX and Cisco ASA from thinkahead.com
http://www.thinkahead.com/deep-dive-vnx-pool-design/
http://www.thinkahead.com/cisco-asa-clustering-changing-shape-network-security/

5)Cmdlet 'get-esxcli' usage in PowerCli-good read for powercli enthusiast
http://www.virten.net/2014/02/howto-use-esxcli-in-powercli/

6)"Server for NFS" tweak in windows 2012
http://blogs.technet.com/b/sfu/archive/2014/02/17/read-write-buffer-size-on-windows-2012-for-server-for-nfs.aspx

7)Storage performance optimization  with vBrownbags
http://professionalvmware.com/2014/02/vbrownbag-follow-up-conquering-storage-performance-w-vishal-misra-and-jonathan-klick/
You can sign up for the #vBrownBag at ProfessionalVMware.com.

8)How to Earn money by becoming writer/blogger-Excellent Read for those who want to make career in writing.
http://lifehacker.com/how-i-make-a-living-as-a-writer-and-you-can-too-1525380428

9)VMware VCAP-DCA exam command-line cheat sheet from ivobeerens.nl
https://communities.vmware.com/servlet/JiveServlet/download/1760890-63894/VMware%20VCAP-DCA%20exam%20command-line%20cheat%20sheet%20v1.0.pdf

10)Tweaks for VPXD.cfg- some are still applicable for newer versions of vCenter server
http://www.boche.net/blog/index.php/2010/03/13/vpxd-cfg-advanced-configuration/

Have a nice day..


Friday, February 14, 2014

Exclusive Valentine's Day Post

This post is exclusively dedicated to IT Engineers/Administrators who are dedicatedly working and resolving server related issues..on the eve of Valentine's Day..TGIF

Thursday, February 13, 2014

Internet Links of Interest

Todays day was very hectic for me and if tomorrow will be the same, i'm gonna declare this week as hectic week of the month. So much tasks at hand, dexterity at it's fullest level, but still got some pending work for FRY day. But don't worry, i hope your friday will be like TGIF+Valentine Fever for some. Mine Valentine days are already gone, but still i celebrate it with my Production Cluster and FC-SAN, hehehe.

Here are some catchy links that i was able to collect for sharing with you guys..

1) Free Ebooks-anyone wants free M$ ebooks- Powershell Best Practices is my Favorite.
http://blogs.technet.com/b/keithmayer/archive/2014/02/11/12-free-ebooks-on-windows-server-2012-r2-windows-8-1-system-center-2012-r2-windows-azure-and-more.aspx#.Uvy0nPmSzig

2)Making your Hyper-V infrastructure more robust and secure.
http://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/7-keys-to-hyper-v-security/

Great write-up and really good tips to make your environment safe from prying-eyes..keep off NSA..

3)Linux Primer from HTG- Rsync and IPtables.
http://www.howtogeek.com/175008/the-non-beginners-guide-to-syncing-data-with-rsync/

http://www.howtogeek.com/177621/the-beginners-guide-to-iptables-the-linux-firewall/

4)Storage Migration nightmares..take this URL before sleep.
http://timsvirtualworld.com/2014/02/speeding-up-lun-snapshot-imports-resignaturing/

5)Awesome New avataar of my favorite Reporting tool -vCheck

http://www.virtu-al.net/vcheck-pluginsheaders/vcheck/

6)Book Launch- New Book "Vmware vSphere Resource Management Essentials"
http://www.packtpub.com/vmware-vsphere-resource-management-essentials/book

Hope above mentioned Links will ease your work...Njoy


Monday, February 10, 2014

FAIQ-Microsoft Hyper-V Interview Questions

Microsoft Hyper-V is also giving neck-to-neck competition to VMware and corporate's are rapidly adopting dual hypervisor strategies, that is the reason to start learning another hypervisor. being bi-lingual will help you in standing-out from the crowd.

1.What is virtualization (in general)?
Ans.

2.What are the 4 major virtualization areas?
Ans.

3.Describe the major benefits of Server Virtualization.
Ans.

4.What is the difference between hosted virtualization and hypervisor-based virtualization?
Ans.

5.What's the idea behind Type 1 and Type 2 methods of virtualization?
Ans.

6.Talk briefly about the history of Microsoft-based virtualization products.
Ans.

7.What is Hyper-V?
Ans.

8.Name a few competitive products that can be compared (even roughly) with Hyper-V.
Ans.

9.What are the major differences between Hyper-V RTM and Hyper-V R2? Name some of the major differences.
Ans.

10.What are the hardware requirements for Hyper-V?
Ans.

11.How many logical CPUs does Hyper-V R2 support?
Ans.

12.How much RAM can be assigned to VMs in Hyper-V R2?
Ans.

13.What's Microsoft Hyper-V Server?
Ans.

14.Describe the process of installing Hyper-V from scratch on a brand new machine.
Ans.

15.What types of network connections does Hyper-V allow?
Ans.

16.When building a new Hyper-V host, what would your networking considerations be?
Ans.

17.Why is it important to leave one physical NIC for the host OS?
Ans.

18.Talk about MAC address ranges and potential issues with Hyper-V RTM. How was this solved in R2?
Ans.

19.What are the different virtual disk options in Hyper-V?
Ans.

20.When considering performance, what type 0f virtual disk would you use?
Ans.

21.What are pass-through disks?
Ans.

22.Talk about hot adding and hot removing disks in Hyper-V R2.
Ans.

23.What are VM snapshots?
Ans.

24.Talk about performance considerations and other "issues" with VM snapshots.
Ans.

25.What's the difference between applying, deleting and reverting to snapshots?
Ans.

26.Describe the process of creating a new VM from scratch.
Ans.

27.Where does Hyper-V place the files and settings for VMs, by default? How do you change that?
Ans.

28.What are synthetic drivers?
Ans.

29.What are emulated drivers?
Ans.

30.When creating a new VM that'll run Windows Server 2008, what type of NIC would you create?
Ans.

31.Following the previous question, what type of NIC would you create for a WIN PE-based VM? Why?
Ans.

32.Migrating a Windows Server 2003 VM from Virtual Server 2005, what type of NIC would you need to use?
Ans.

33.Creating a new VM, what type of disk controller would you need to use for the VM's system disk?
Ans.

34.What are Integration Components?
Ans.

35.Talk about certain issues with hosting DCs virtually.
Ans.

36.What are "Enlightened Partitions"?
Ans.

37.What OSs are supported on Hyper-V?
Ans.

38.What types of backups can you use for VMs?
Ans.

39.Talk about performing backups of VMs and VSS.
Ans.

40.How do you export a VM? Mention a couple of methods.
Ans.

41.Talk about domain membership considerations for Hyper-V hosts.
Ans.

42.Where can you manage Hyper-V hosts from?
Ans.

43.What is RSAT?
Ans.

44.How would you manage Hyper-V from a Windows 7-based machine?
Ans.

45.Talk about permission issues in regards of managing Hyper-V hosts.
Ans.

46.What is AZMAN?
Ans. AzMan (Authorization Manager) was the tool of choice for managing specific virtual machine functions (Shut Down, etc.). AzMan was deprecated in 2012 and no longer works for Hyper-V Server 2012 R2. The MMC console and the XML file for Hyper-V are still there, but they won’t control Hyper-V Server 2012 R2. If you’re using 2012 or earlier and want to work with AzMan, this is the document that you want. I would recommend not getting too attached, since AzMan has reached the end of the road.

47.Talk about the licensing benefits of Hyper-V under the various editions of Windows Server 2008.
Ans.

48.Wanting to create a failover cluster on 2 Hyper-V nodes in Windows Server 2008 R2, what edition of Windows would you prefer? Why?
Ans.

49.Talk about Hyper-V-based high availability.
Ans.

50.What's Quick Migration?
Ans.

51.What's Live Migration?
Ans.

52.Talk about downtime issues with Quick Migration vs. Live Migration.
Ans.

53.Talk about the steps needed to be taken in order to setup a Live Migration setup.
Ans.

54.What is CSV?
Ans.

55.Can you create a Live Migration setup without CSV? Explain.
Ans.

56.Mention a few methods for initiating a Live Migration movement of VMs between one host and another.
Ans.

57.How do you monitor the performance of your VMs?
Ans.

58.How do you know how much memory a specific VM uses?
Ans.

59.How do you know what's the I/O used on a Hyper-V host?
Ans.
60.How do you monitor the bandwidth used by a specific VM?
Ans.

61.Talk about SCVMM, SCOM, SCCM and Hyper-V.
Ans.

62.Talk about WMI and Hyper-V.
Ans.

However, I was able to accumulate only 62 questions, but Hyper-V is not at all limited to above questionnaire. It is so vast and ever expanding, so please take above set of interview questions as an example ONLY and don't limit your knowledge to above mentioned questions. 

While creating today's blog entry, I got acquainted with a site www.techiebird.com, this site is great and focuses only on interview preparation, and it is not at all limited to Windows platform, but also caters virtualization, linux, network, SQL and Exchange.Disclaimer- Don't held me responsible, if you fail any Hyper-V interview, after reading above questions. Also, refer Microsoft Technical Documentation for updated and correct information.


Thursday, February 6, 2014

FAIQ-Windows/Active Directory Interview Questions

As promised yesterday, here is the first lot of Questions.

1. What are fine grained policies in Windows Server 2008 R2?
Ans. Fine Grained Policies help administrators to specify different sets of policies for different users or groups. In earlier versions of Windows, operating systems only allowed administrators to assign group policies on Site, Domain or Organizational Unit level. With the release of Windows Server 2008 RTM/R2, feature of fine grained policies is introduced which allows administrators to assign policies on per-user or per-group basis.

2. Name the two built-in GPOs that arc by default created when AD DS is installed.
Ans. The two built-in GPOs are Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controller Policy.

3. What is the difference between Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controller Policy?
Ans. Default Domain Policy is applied throughout the domain and is effective on every object and organizational unit that a domain contains. On the other hand, Default Domain Controller Policy is linked only to Domain Controllers organizational unit and is applicable to all domain controllers that reside in that OU.

4. What are the two ways of deploying software through group policies?
Ans. Two ways to deploy software applications through group policies are:
a) Assigned (Computer Configuration and User Configuration): In this type of deployment applications automatically get installed as soon as computer starts or user logs on.
b) Published (User Configuration): In this deployment type users must manually install available applications by going to Add or Remove Programs in Control Panel of client computers.

5. What is the difference between assigning an application and publishing an application in Group Policy?
Ans. While deploying software applications through group policies, when the deployment type is set as assigned, applications automatically get installed as soon as the computers start or the users log on. On the other hand when the deployment type is set as published, users must go to Control Panel and must manually install the applications before they can use them.

6. What command is used to add client computers to a specific DHCP User Class?
Ans. IPCONFIG /SetClassID is the command that administrators must use on all client computers to add them to a specific DHCP User Class.

7. Which command line utility is used to administer Windows SharePoint Services?
Ans. Stsadm.exe is the command line utility that is used to administer Windows SharePoint Services (WSS).

8. What is Windows PowerShell?
Ans. Windows PowerShell was introduced with the release of Microsoft Windows Server 2008 RTM and is now carried forward to Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 operating system. Windows PowerShell provides CLI or Command Line Interface in which users and administrators can run commands. Moreover Windows PowerShell is a scripting platform which administrators can use to create and execute scripts to automate administrative tasks.

9. What are Starter GPOs?
Ans. A Starter GPO contains Administrative templates. Starter GPOs can be configured with the settings which administrators want to preconfigure while creating Group Policy Objects (GPOs). When administrators create GPOs they must configure every created GPO right from the scratch and some GPOs must have identical settings to be configured. Without Starter GPOs this would have been a tedious task. Starter GPOs allow administrators to configure identical settings just once and then the Starter GPOs can be called while creating GPOs.

10. Being an Administrator of DATACORP.COM you have configured a GPO named Desktop Lock that has following settings:
a) Remove Add or Remove Programs
b) Restrict Access to Control Panel
c) Prevent changing desktop wallpaper
You want to link it to an OU named Datacorp Users which also contains a child OU named Executives. What will you do to prevent Executives OU from inheriting settings from DesktopLock GPO?
Ans. A Parent Organizational Unit (OU) can contain multiple Child OUs. By default, when a GPO is linked to a parent OU its child OUs automatically inherit the settings. To prevent the settings from being inherited by child OUs, inheritance on child OUs must be blocked by the administrators manually.

11. You are an administrator at DATACORP.COM. For security reasons, you want that users cannot plug any USB or removable devices to the computers. What appropriate action you should take to do so?
Ans. A separate GPO in which removable and plug and play devices are restricted must be created and linked to the domain using Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). Furthermore, this GPO must be enforced by right clicking on the GPO and clicking Enforced option so that even if some OUs have been configured to block inheritance, this group policy setting still becomes applicable on them.

12. In which condition you are required to configure Loopback Policy Processing?
Ans. When an Organizational Unit (OU) is linked to the Group Policy Object (GPO) that has been configured with both User Configuration and Computer Configuration and administrators want that if a particular computer is shared in public places, such as reception area, only Computer Configuration takes precedence irrespective of the user account that logs on to the computer. In such cases Loopback Policy Processing is used which enforces Computer Configuration of the GPO to be applied on the publicly shared computer.

13. You want to install Microsoft Word 2007 on all your client computers in the network. How would you accomplish the task with least administrative overhead?
Ans. Installing MS Office package on every client computer individually would be a tedious task. In such case administrators must use Group Policies to deploy the package domain wide. They can choose either Published or Assigned mode to accomplish the task.

14. Why do we need to configure Disk Quota?
Ans. In complex production environments many times administrators configure roaming user pro-files and they configure user files to be saved on a centrally located file server. In order to re-strict and limit users from occupying large disk spaces, administrators mostly configure Disk Quotas so that users can only utilize the hard disk spaces that administrators manually assign to them.

15. What is the difference between Hard Quota and Soft Quota?
Ans. When administrators assign disk quotas they can choose any one of the two available options. They can either restrict users from saving files on the quota enabled volumes if they exceed their quota limits or they can allow users to continue saving their files even if their quota limits exceed, but with warning messages. When administrators restrict users from saving files on quota enabled volume this is known as Hard Quota and when users are allowed to save files even if the quota limit expires this is known as Soft Quota.

16. What is a Witness Disk?
Ans. Witness Disks are the shared volumes that contain copies of cluster configuration databases. In Windows Server 2003, Witness Disks were known as Quorum Disks. These disks are connected as a central storage media for the servers that participate as members of the cluster.

17. Which editions of Windows Sever 2008 R2 support failover clustering?
Ans. Only Enterprise and Datacenter editions of Windows Server 2008 R2 support  Failover clustering.

18. What is Volume Shadow Copy?
Ans. Volume Shadow Copy is a feature integrated in Microsoft Windows operating systems that allows administrators to capture snapshots of the data which can be restored in case actual data is lost. Administrators must manually enable Volume Shadow Copy feature for each volume individually.

19. What is Bare Metal restore?
Ans. Bare Metal Restore is a technique through which administrators can restore all backed up data in a fresh machine that has no Operating System or software installed.

20. What is the command line tool used to performing an Active Directory authoritative restore?
Ans. Ntdsutil command is used to perform authoritative restore.

21. How can you perform a Non-Authoritative Restore?
Ans. Non-Authoritative Restore can be performed by navigating Windows Server backup console or by typing Wbadmin.exe on command line.

22. What is the main benefit of restoring Active Directory using Installation from Media (IFM) process?
Ans. With the help of Installation from Media (IFM) process, when an Active Directory is restored on a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer from a backup, it remarkably reduces administrator's overhead which they would otherwise have to face if they had to install Active Directory Domain Services on a bare metal machine and wait for replication to get all configuration and settings.

23. As an administrator of DATACORP.COM you need to create 200 domain user accounts. How will you complete the task with least administrative overhead?
Ans. As an administrator I shall create PowerShell or VBScripts to automate user creation task. In order to accomplish this, I will create a .ps1 file that will contain command to create user accounts. Once the file is created I will call it in PowerShell interface by using

24. Which command is used to manage SYSVOL replication when Forest Functional Level is Windows Server 2008 R2?
Ans. DFSRadmin.exe command is used to manage SYSVOL replication in Windows Server 2008  R2 when Forest Functional Level is raised to Windows Server 2008 R2. DFSR is also used during Active Directory replication. In legacy versions of Windows Network Operating Systems, File Replication Services (FRS) was used.

25. Which command-line utility is used to perform initial configuration of WDS (Windows Deployment Services) Server in Windows Server 2008 R2?
Ans. Wdsutil is the command-line utility through which we can configure WDS (Windows Deployment Services) Server.

26. Which command is used to enable Active Directory Recycle Bin feature in Windows Server 2008 R2?
Ans. We can type the following command in Windows Powershell module:
Enable-ADOptionalFeature -Identity <ADOptionalFeature> -Scope <ADOptionalFeatureScope> -Target <ADEntity>.
For ex-, if we want to enable Active Directory Recycle bin for mydomain.com domain, we should type:
Enable-ADOptionalFeature -Identity 'CN=Recycle Bin Feature,CN=Optional Features,CN=Directory Service,CN=Windows NT,CN=Services,CN=Configuration,DC=contoso,DC=com' -Scope ForestOrConfigurationSet -Target 'contoso.com'

27. What does OOBE command do?
Ans. When Windows Server 2008 R2 is installed, the very first window that appears on the screen is Initial Configuration Tasks. After administrators have configured their servers with appropriate settings they can disable the initialization of this window at every start up. However if because of any reason they still want to access this window they can type in Out-Of-Box Experience (OOBE) command in the search box or Run command box to initiate it.

28. Which command line tool is used to troubleshoot DNS server?
Ans. Nslookup command is used to troubleshoot DNS server from command line.

29. Through which command we can convert a Security Policy into a Group Policy Object (GPO)?
Ans. Scwcmd.exe transform command converts a Security Policy into a GPO.

30. Which command is used to update Group Policy settings on a client computer?
Ans. Gpupdate.exe or gpupdate /force command can be executed in the elevated command prompt on the client computer.

31. Which command is used to manage DNS server from command line?
Ans. Dnscmd command can be used to manage DNS server from command line utility.

32. Which command is used to renew an IP address assigned by DHCP server?
Ans. In order to renew dynamic IP address assigned by DHCP server ipconfig /renew command must be executed from the elevated command prompt.

33. Which command you must use to deploy Read Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
Ans. Although deployment of Read Only Domain Controller (RODC) can be made simpler through GUI, adprep /rodcprep command can be used to create RODC through command line interface.

34. Why do we initiate ipconfig /flushdns command?
Ans. It clears DNS cache from the client computers.

35. What is Global Names Zone?
Ans. GlobalNames Zone is a new feature introduced in Microsoft Windows Server 2008 which allows single label (NetBIOS) name resolution. This feature is introduced to replace WINS, hence completely eliminating its requirement.

36. Name the scopes available for DNS Zone replication in Active Directory infrastructure.
Ans. There are four scopes where DNS Zones can be replicated in Active Directory infrastructure: a) To all DNS servers in the Active Directory Forest b) To all DNS servers in the Active Directory Domain c) To all domain controllers in an Active Directory Domain d) To all domain controllers specified in the scope of the following application directory partition (Custom list required)

37. What are Name Servers?
Ans. Name Server is a dedicated computer that is responsible to resolve DNS queries initiated by client computers. Sometimes DNS server is also referred as Name Server.

38. What is the use of LMhosts file?
Ans. Lmhost file is used to resolve NetBIOS names to their respective IP addresses. IP addresses must be manually specified in the Lmhost file.

39. Why should you configure alternate DNS server address?
Ans. In medium or large-scale industries administrators mostly deploy multiple DNS servers so that if one server fails entire network does not get affected because of lack of name resolution system. In such scenarios administrators specify preferred and alternate DNS server addresses to the client computers so that if because of any reason preferred DNS server fails to resolve the query, the query can be sent to the alternate DNS server for name resolution.

40. What are the DNS zone transfer options available in the Zone Transfers tab in Windows Server 2008 R2?
Ans. There are three options available in the Zone Transfers tab.
a) To any server
b) Only to servers listed on the Name Server Tab
c) Only to the following servers (Custom list of DNS server must be specified).

41. What is the newly added feature in Windows Server 2008 R2 which allows client computers to verify the authenticity of the DNS record?
Ans. DNSSEC is the feature which checks the integrity of DNS query responses through public key technologies.

42. What is the use of cache.dns file and where it is found?
Ans. Cache.dns file stores DNS cache which is used by DNS server to resolve names over intemet. It contains the list of available internet root servers. It can be located in %systemroot%\system32 DNS directory.

43. What is BIND in DNS?
Ans. Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) is a means of transferring zone data that is used by UNIX based operating systems because they do not use fast transfer format. When Windows based computers perform zone transfer to UNIX based operating systems BIND is used. This option is enabled by default.

44. What is the difference between Forward Lookup and Reverse Lookup Zone?
Ans. Forward lookup zone is configured to resolve Fully Qualified Domain Names to IP addresses whereas Reverse lookup zone is configured to resolve IP addresses to Fully Qualified Domain Names.

45. In which condition can we store a DNS zone in Active Directory?
Ans. In any active directory oriented network infrastructure when an active directory domain controller also plays a role of DNS server, by default DNS database is stored in Active Directory database. This default DNS configuration is known as DNS integrated zone.

46. What is the difference between basic disk and dynamic disk?
Ans. One of the major differences between basic disks and dynamic disks is that dynamic disks can be used to implement Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAIDs) and are mostly used in production environments whereas normal disk types are mostly used in home environments. When an operating system is installed on a hard disk drive by default it is set as a basic disk. Administrators must manually convert basic disks to dynamic disks.

47. What is the difference between Network Attached Storage (NAS) and Direct Attached Storage (DAS)?
Ans. Network Attached Storage devices are those that are not directly connected to the computers and are centrally located and connected to the network. In such cases data is backed up and stored on these devices as per the schedule which remarkably reduces administrators' overhead that they would otherwise have to face if the devices were connected locally. These devices are helpful when there are multiple file servers and domain controllers in the network. Direct Attached Storage devices are the ones that are directly connected to the computers and backups are stored on them. These devices are useful when there is only one or maximum two file servers or domain controllers in a network.

48. What do you understand by Network Load Balancing Cluster?
Ans. Network Load Balancing or NLB is a cluster configuration that allows administrators to equally balance the load of traffic among all the members in a cluster. With the help of NLB, queries are distributed among the servers of a cluster on round robin basis. For example if there are three servers in a cluster namely A, B and C first query will be sent to server A. second to server B and third to server C. When the cluster receives fourth query it will be sent to server A and so on.

49. What is SMB?
Ans. Server Message Block or SMB is a protocol that is used to provide access to the shared resources located at the file servers. Sometimes SMB is also known as Common Internet File System or CIFS. SMB is an application layer protocol.

50. Why offline files are important?
Ans. Offline files are important if an organization has multiple users who work on part time basis and their job includes working from homes as well. In such cases administrators configure off-line files so that these mobile users can save cached copies of the files on their local machines on which they can work even when they are not connected to the office network

51. What are RAID volumes?
Ans. RAID volumes arc the hard disk drives that are logically bundled together to work as a single entity so as to provide fault tolerance and additional storage capacity. In order to implement RAIDs, hard disks must be converted to dynamic disk types.

52. What is Network File System (NFS)?
Ans. Network File System (NFS) is a protocol used to access shared resources efficiently. When any object or resource is accessed from a remote location, because of NFS the operating system looks at the remote entities as local objects or resources stored on a local storage media.

53. What is Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)?
Ans. Cluster Shared Volumes is a feature which is introduced in Windows Server 2008 R2 and is used in conjunction with Hyper-V. With the help of this feature administrators can access multiple virtual hard disk files from all cluster nodes simultaneously. 

54. What is dynamic routing?
Ans. When entries in routing table are managed through protocols such as Routing Information Protocol (RIP) or Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) the process is known as dynamic routing. When dynamic routing is configured, routers automatically choose best path to forward packets to their destinations.

55. What do you understand by NAT?
Ans. Network Address Translation or NAT is the process through which, in most cases, a single public IP address is shared among multiple computers on a local area network that have been assigned with the private IP addresses by the administrators.

56. What is OSI reference model?
Ans. The Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model was first developed by the International Standard Organizations in early 1980's. It was designed to allow communication between two computers efficiently and in a secure way. The OSI reference model defines the process of how data should be transferred between two networking devices of different vendors. According to OSI reference model, data that is transferred between two computers or networking devices is manipulated on all its seven layers accordingly.

57. How many layers does OSI reference model contain?
Ans. OSI reference model has seven layers in all, namely:
a) Physical Layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Network Layer
d) Transport Layer
e) Session Layer
f) Presentation Layer
g) Application Layer

58. What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
Ans. TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol and is connection oriented which means that it verifies if the destination computer is connected before it starts sending the packets. UDP or User Datagram Protocol on the other hand is connectionless protocol that sends packets to the destination computer without checking the connection state.

59. How many layers does TCP/IP Protocol Stack contain?
Ans. TCP/IP Protocol Stack contains lout layers, namely Application, Transport, Internet and Network

60. Routers function at which layer of OSI reference model?
Ans. Since routers mostly deal with IP addresses, they function at third layer of OSI reference model.

61. What are routing protocols?
Ans. Routing protocols are the protocols that help routers communicate with each other and share their routing tables.

62. What are port numbers?
Ans. Port numbers are the logical gates identified by numeric characters. These logical gates are used when a computer receives or sends information. Because of port numbers computers accept or deny the packets depending on the configuration in the firewalls or routers. For example if an administrator has blocked port number 23 on a router, it cannot accept telnet requests whatsoever.

63. Name the types of wireless topologies.
Ans. There are two wireless topologies that can be used while establishing WLAN infrastructure, namely Ad-hoc and Infrastructure.

64. What do you understand by the term VLAN?
Ans.VLAN or Virtual LAN is a term and configuration mostly used in Cisco platforms. With the help of VLAN, a managed LAN switch is divided into multiple logical switches. Technically every LAN port of a switch has its own broadcast domain. VLANS are mostly configured in large production environment and where multiple subnets are deployed by the administrators.

65. What is the difference between network and subnet?
Ans. Network can be considered a container for single or multiple subnets of different IP address ranges whereas a subnet is a part of a network that has a specific IP address range. For example a network may have an IP address 192.168.0.0/26 and 192.168.0.0. 192.168.0.63/26 is a subnet in the network.

66. What is the major difference between Tracert and Pathping command?
Ans. Tracert is a tool that is used to determine the route of the packets. It only gives the information about the routers (hops) through which the packet passes to reach its destination. On the other hand, Pathping not only traces the route but also shows the time taken by the packets sent to each hop (router), hence checking the connection state as well. It gives complete information about the number of packets which are dropped and also about the packets that successfully reached their destinations.

67. What is the difference between Multicast and Broadcast?
Ans. Multicast is the process in which a message is transmitted to a group or set of computers whereas in Broadcast the message is transmitted to all computers.

68. Which protocol does IPv4 use to resolve broadcast addresses into Media Access Control (MAC) addresses of NICs?
Ans. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to resolve broadcast addresses into MAC addresses.

69. You want to promote one of your Windows Server 2008 R2 machine as a Domain Controller. Which command you will type to do so?
Ans. You can initiate this process by adding the Active Directory Domain Services server role to the server and then you can execute DCPromo command. Alternatively you can type DCPROMO.EXE command directly in the Run command box to kick start AD DS installation wizard.

70. Which command would you use to add or remove roles in Windows Server 2008 R2 Server Core?
Ans. Ocsetup.exe command is used to add or remove roles in Windows Server 2008 R2 Server Core Edition except for Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), which is added by using Dcpromo.exe command.

71. You are the Administrator of a company named DATACORP.COM. It contains Windows Server 2008 R2 promoted as a Domain Controller and configured as Global Catalog (GC) which also holds all five operation master roles. You have also deployed another Domain Controller in your domain. However, it is not configured as GC. What Flexible Single Master Operations (FSMO) Role should you transfer to the non-GC domain controller?
Ans. Infrastructure Master Role must be transferred to the non-GC domain controller. This step is mandatory because if Infrastructure Master and Global Catalog remain on the same server, Infrastructure Master would not update NTDS.dit file when GC updates itself. This role transfer step is not necessary if there is only one Domain Controller in the network.

72. What are the pre-requisites to add a computer to the domain?
Ans. A computer must have physical connection to the network, it must have IP address and appropriate DNS address assigned to it, user who wishes to add the computer to a domain must have administrative privileges on the local computer and must have any domain user account credentials for domain authentication while adding. 

73. What is pre-staging? 
Ans. Pre-staging means a computer account is manually created in a domain before the client computer is actually added to it. This helps administrators place computer accounts in the desired OU and apply appropriate group policies on them. 

74. How many types of Operation Master Roles are there in a forest? 
Ans. There are five Operation Master Roles in an Active Directory forest and are divided in two main categories. 
a) Forest Wide Roles: 
i) Schema Master: Schema Master is responsible for the changes that are made to the schema of the forest. 
ii)Domain Naming Master: Domain Naming Master is responsible for adding or removing domains in the forest. It also checks if any domain name already exists in the forest while creating a new domain. 
b) Domain Wide Roles: 
i) PDC Emulator: Primary Domain Controller (PDC) Emulator is responsible for password updates, time synchronization and manages Group Policy updates within a Domain. 
ii) RID Master: RID (Relative ID) Master is responsible for issuing Security Identifiers (SIDs) for the objects in the domain. SIDs are issued by RID Master in the lot of 500. 
iii) Infrastructure Master: Infrastructure Master maintains the records of modifications of the groups or users of other domains in the forest. 

75. How many types of Active Directory partitions are there? 
Ans. Active Directory has four partitions namely: 
a) Domain Partition: Contains information about all the domain objects including Users, Groups, Published Folders, etc. 
b) Schema Partition: It maintains records for all attributes of all object classes forest wide. 
c) Application Directory Partition: Creates and manages active directory replication topologies it also maintains records for DNS replication scopes. 
d) Configuration Partition: Maintains and manages the logical structure of the forests. Logical structure may include structures of domains, etc. Configuration partition also contains information about physical structure such as subnets, sites, etc. 

76. In which case you should enable Universal Group Membership Caching (UGMC) in a site? 
Ans. When a domain or forest is expanded at distant geographical locations multiple sites are created and configured accordingly. It is recommended that Global Catalog server must be present in every site but sometimes if the two branches are connected to each other via slow WAN link, synchronization between two Global Catalog servers consumes a decent amount of time and Internet bandwidth. To avoid such situations Universal Group Membership Caching should be enabled on the servers located at branch offices which can then cache the information of Global Catalog server present in the main branch. 

77. How many Forest Functional Levels does Windows Server 2008 R2 have? 
Ans. Windows Server 2008 R2 has four Forest Functional Levels as written below: 
a) Windows 2000: This FFL must be configured on Windows Server 2008 R2 if the forest contains Domain Controllers that run Windows 2000 Servers, Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2008 R2. 
b) Windows Server 2003: This FFL must be configured if Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controller is to be installed in the forest that already has domain controllers that run Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2008 R2 operating systems. 
c) Windows Server 2008: This FFL can be configured when the forest has existing Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers. 
d) Windows Server 2008 R2: This FFL can be used if the forest has existing Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers only. This can also be configured if administrators plan to use Windows Server 2008 R2 operating systems only for future expansions. 

78. Which Operation Master role is responsible for time synchronization and password changing? 
Ans. PDC Emulator is the Operation Master Role in Windows Server 2008 R2 Active Directory infrastructure that is responsible for time synchronization and password changes. 

77. What do you understand by the term Certificate Revocation? 
Ans.Certificate Revocation is when a certificate is either expired or is revoked manually by the ad. ministrators because of inappropriate acts initiated by the users. When a certificate is revoked its information is updated in Certificate Revocation List or CRL. 

78. What is the function of Infrastructure Master Role? 
Ans. Infrastructure Master regularly communicates with Global Catalog server on the network and updates itself with the latest partial information of the objects located in other domains. If there are multiple domain controllers present in a network, server holding Infrastructure Master role must not be the same computer that is also a Global Catalog server. 

79. What is symmetric encryption? 
Ans. Symmetric encryption is the encryption method where same encryption key is used to encrypt and decrypt data. 

80. What is Asymmetric encryption? 
Ans. Asymmetric encryption is the process of encryption where a key pair is used to encrypt or decrypt data. In asymmetric encryption type public and private keys are used for encryption and decryption and information encrypted using public key can only be decrypted using the corresponding private key and vice versa. 

81. What do you understand by single sign on (SSO)? 
Ans. Single Sign On or SSO is a feature that administrators use to allow users to access objects on different domains or forests without providing credentials every time they access them. Active Directory Federation Services or ADFS must be installed to configure SSO. Example may include some sites that also allow users to logon using Facebook credentials. 

82. What do you understand by Network Device Enrollment Service (NDES)? 
Ans. Network Device Enrollment Service is a service through which Routers and Switches can also be a part of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). It uses a protocol known as Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP) developed by Cisco which helps devices and users to auto-enroll digital certificates for authentication purposes. 

83. What is the difference between trusted domain and trusting domain? 
Ans. A trusting domain is the one that allows users from trusted domains to access its objects whereas trusted domains are the ones users of which are allowed to access the objects that reside in trusting domains. By default two-way trust is automatically established between the two domains that reside in a single Active Directory forest. 

84. What is a pre-shared key? 
Ans. Pre-shared key is a numeric and alphanumeric key combination that is stored in clear text (unencrypted format) and is used to pair or authenticate two devices before actual communication takes place between them. In most production environments use of pre-shared key is not at all recommended however it can be used for testing purposes. 

85. What is Integrated Windows Authentication? 
Ans. Integrated Windows Authentication is a process through which Microsoft products use Windows user accounts to allow access to the users. Integrated Windows Authentication is mostly used in IIS where credentials of active directory user accounts are used. 

86. What are bridgehead servers? 
Ans. A Bridgehead server is a dedicated domain controller in every site that communicates with the bridgehead server of other site for active directory replication. 

87. What is the function of Key Recovery Agent (KRA)? 
Ans. While encrypting files or folders encryption keys are used. Encryption keys are also used to decrypt files or folders when users need access to them. If because of any reason encryption keys are lost encrypted files or folders become permanently inaccessible. To avoid these situations Key Recovery Agents or KRAs are configured which are capable of recovering the lost encryption keys. 

88. What is Client Certificate Authentication method? 
Ans. Client Certificate Authentication is a method that enables Web-based Client computers to verify themselves on the Web servers. In this method client computers are authenticated by the Web server through the security certificate installed on them. Certificates are issued to the client computers either by local or third-party trusted Certificate Authorities (CAs), e.g. VeriSign.

89. What is Selective Authentication?
Ans. Selective Authentication is the feature in Windows Server 2008 R2 which, when enabled, allows administrators to specify which user accounts are authorized to access shared resources from other forests while establishing trust relationships between them.

90. What is a trust?
Ans. In an active directory forest, trust is when two domains or forests allow users from other domains or forests to access their objects. In an active directory forest, if there are multiple domains, a two-way trust is automatically established between the domains. If an organization has multiple forests, administrators must manually establish trusts between them.

91. What are the prerequisites for deploying AD FS (Active Directory Federation Services)?
Ans. Each participating active directory forest must have the following prerequisites for deploying AD FS:
a) Domain Controller = 1
b) Member server hosting internal AD FS = 1
c) Member server hosting AD FS proxy server = 1
d) Microsoft SQL Server 2005 = 1

92. What is the use of Active Directory Recycle Bin in Windows Server 2008 R2?
Ans. Active Directory Recycle Bin is the new feature in Windows Server 2008 R2. It allows administrators to recover Active Directory objects when they are deleted accidentally.

93. What is Distinguished Name?
Ans. Distinguished Name is a combination of strings and attributes, mainly used by LDAP for recognizing LDAP objects. It is a sequence of Relative Distinguished Names (RDN), which is separated by commas. An e.g. of Distinguished Name is DN = CN=John,OU=Sales,DC=Abc,DC=Com where CN=John, OU=Sales, DC=Abc and DC=Com are individual RDNs for above DN.

94. What is Auto Enrollment?
Ans. Auto Enrollment is a process by which computers and users automatically enroll themselves for certificates and smart cards. Auto Enrollment can be configured through group policy.

95. What are the two types of Replication Transport Protocols in Active Directory Sites and Services snap-in?
Ans. Directory Service Remote Procedure Call (DS-RPC): DS- RPC is used for Intrasite and Intersite Replication and it appears as IP subcontainer under Inter-Site Transports container in Active Directory Sites and Services snap-in. InterSite Messaging-Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (ISM-SMTP): ISM-SMTP is used for intersite messaging.

96. What is a Global Catalog Server?
Ans. A Global Catalog Server contains partial information and/or replica of every active directory object in every domain in a forest.

97. What is the function of Schema Master?
Ans. Schema Master Role is responsible for the changes in schema in a Forest. It controls and maintains all modification and updates to the schema. An example may be the additional attribute for e-mail address that becomes available once Exchange Server is installed in an Active Directory forest.

98. Which protocol is used by AD LDS?
Ans. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is used by AD LDS that works on port TCP 389. 

99. What is UPN suffix?
Ans. User Principal Name or UPN Suffix is an alternate suffix that can be added to a domain user name. If there are multiple domains and domain trees in an active directory forest, a user account may have a lengthy UPN suffix, for example usernamekarootdomain.childdomain.com. With the help of alternate UPN suffix it can be usemarne@aiternateupnsufa.com. This makes it simpler for users to type their credentials.

100. What is the difference between local users and domain users?
Ans. In any computer when user accounts are stored and authenticated from the local Security Accounts Manager or SAM file they are known as local user accounts. On the other hand when the account credentials are sent to the domain controllers for authentication, such type of user accounts are known as domain user accounts.

However, I was able to accumulate only 100 questions, but Windows/AD is not at all limited to above questionnaire. It is so vast and ever expanding, so please take above set of interview questions as an example ONLY and don't limit your knowledge to above mentioned questions. 

Disclaimer- Don't held me responsible, if you fail any Windows/AD interview, after reading above questions. Also, refer Microsoft Technical Documentation for updated and correct information.


Wednesday, February 5, 2014

Announcement-Windows/Active Directory and Linux System Administration Interview Questions

Soon i'll update windows/AD and Linux system administration questions with answers. Yeah, i understand that these days corporates are looking for IT admins who are "Jack of All and Master of None". Soon i'll share Interview Questions and Scenario based question with appropriate answers. This is my endeavour towards helping out IT community with relevant interview info for succeeding in interviews.

I, myself experienced some tricky questions and i was not able to come up with an answer. But, i will try my level best to help you out.

Star wars style introduction crawl
http://starwars.com/play/online-activities/crawl-creator/index.jsp?cs=bnm3g2ybmg
hope you all liked it, i also encourage you to create yours today for free .. :-)

Tuesday, February 4, 2014

FAIQ-Frequently Asked Interview Questions- VMware Related

As I was preparing for Job Change..I started brushing up on my vmware skills and simultaneously helping the community. Here i'm sharing some of the questions that are Frequently being asked in interviews..i will update these questions with appropriate answers and VMware KB articles..

1. Linked Mode Considerations for vCenter Server?
Ans.
Ensure that each vCenter Server instance in a Linked Mode group is part of a domain and not a workgroup. Each instance can be in a different domain if the domains have a two-way trust relationship 
between themselves 

  • DNS must be operational in order for Linked Mode replication to work 
  • DNS name of the vCenter Server system must match the actual machine name 
  • Ensure that vCenter Server system is not a domain controller 
  • Ensure that vCenter Server system is not a terminal server 
  • Ensure that the installer is run by a domain user who is an administrator of the vCenter Server machine and the target machine of the Linked Mode group 
  • Ensure that the domain user account has the following permissions: 
  • o Member of the Administrators group 
  • o Act as part of the operating system 
  • o Log on as a service 
  • Ensure that the vCenter Server instances are running network time synchronization and their time is not more than 5 minutes apart 
  • Ensure that the Network Service account has permissions to write to the vCenter Server installation folder

2. Pre-requisites for Site Recovery Manager (SRM)?
Ans.

SRM System Requirements
Processor

2.0GHz or higher Intel or AMD x86 processor

Memory

2GB minimum

Disk Storage

5GB minimum

Networking

1 Gigabit recommended for communication between SRM sites.

3. Different Admission control policies and how you will calculate slots?  
Ans.
Amount of host failures

Percentage reserved

Designated failover host

Slot size-HA uses the highest CPU reservation of any given VM and the highest memory reservation of any given VM. For ex, If VM1 has 2GHZ and 1024MB reserved and VM2 has 1GHZ and 2048MB reserved the slot size for memory will be 2048MB+memory overhead and the slot size for CPU will be 2GHZ.

4. Explain Link aggregation protocol used in Distributed switch (vDS)? 
5. Background process of a P2V operation?
Ans.
P2V involves the process of decoupling and migrating a physical server's operating system (OS), applications, and data from that physical server to a virtual-machine guest hosted on a virtualized platform.

6. Architectural difference between the HA of ESXi 4.0 and 5.0?
Ans.
ESXi 4.1 and prior uses an agent called “AAM” aka Legato Automated Availability Management. 


With ESXi 5.0 comes a new HA architecture. HA has been rewritten from the ground up to shed some of those constraints that were enforced by AAM. HA as part of 5.0, also referred to as FDM (fault domain manager), introduces less complexity and higher resiliency. From a UI perspective not a lot has changed, but there is a lot under the covers that has changed though, no more primary/secondary node concept as stated but a master/slave concept with an automated election process.
Extra Points- http://www.yellow-bricks.com/vmware-high-availability-deepdiv/#HA-50

7. How to upgrade ESX 3.5 to ESXi 5.0?
Ans.
Not supported for direct upgrade.
You must upgrade version 3.x ESX and ESXi hosts to ESX or ESXi version 4.x before you can upgrade them to ESXi 5.0. See the vSphere 4.x upgrade documentation.

Alternatively, you might find it simpler and more cost effective to do a fresh installation of ESXi 5.0.

8. How Windows licensing works in the VMware environment?
Ans. 
License for each Edition
Standard     per VM   10 VM means 10 license
Enterprise  per VM    10 VM means 3 License(1 enterprise license for 4 VMs)
Datacenter per socket  2 socket means 2 license.Unlimited VM per box
Extra Points-http://microsoftlicensereview.com/tag/microsoft-licensing-with-vmware/

9. After the manual vmotion of a two VMs from one esx host to another esx host in a cluster, I am not able to ping one VM, but i am able to ping the second VM?what is the reason behind this.....
Ans. The no of ports on the virtual switch got exhausted.

10. After the Vmotion of a VM, how does the physical switch knows that the VM is migrated to another esx host and now switch must  send packets to the new esx host's virtual switch on which VM is currently residing?
Ans. its the virtual switch who does the reverse ARP not the esx host

11. What is difference between Storage/Array based replication and host based replication in VMware SRM. which one to use , when and why?
Ans.
SRM supports array‐based replication in which one or more storage arrays at the protected site replicate their data to peer arrays at the recovery site. Storage replication adapters (SRAs) are array‐specific programs that array vendors provide to support the use of array‐based replication by SRM. SRAs are not part of an SRM release. Your array vendor provides and supports SRAs.

Host Based Replication or HBR for short. this is an accurate description and it was the feature name during the beta phase.  However, by the time SRM 5.0 went to GA, each of the replication components went through a name change vSphere Replication.
Extra Points-http://www.boche.net/blog/index.php/2011/10/03/srm-5-0-replication-bits-and-bytes/

12. How election process between many esxi host occurs in one cluster(Vsphere 4, 5 and Vsphere 5.1)
Ans.
vSphere 5.1- Election process is almost similar to vSphere 5.0.
vSphere 5.0-A master is elected by a set of HA agents whenever the agents are not in network contact with a master. A master election thus occurs when HA is first enabled on a cluster and when the host on
which the master is running:

  1.  fails,
  2.  becomes network partitioned or isolated,
  3.  is disconnected from vCenter Server,
  4.  is put into maintenance or standby mode,
  5.  or when HA is reconfigured on the host.

The HA master election takes approximately 15 seconds and is conducted using UDP. While HA won’t
react to failures during the election, once a master is elected, failures detected before and during the
election will be handled. The election process is simple but robust. The host that is participating in the
election with the greatest number of connected datastores will be elected master. If two or more hosts
have the same number of datastores connected, the one with the highest Managed Object Id will be
chosen. This however is done lexically; meaning that 99 beats 100 as 9 is larger than 1. For each host,
the HA State of the host will be shown on the Summary tab. 

vSphere 4.1-It is a common misconception that a re-election occurs when a primary node fails. This is not the case. The promotion of a secondary host only occurs when a primary host is either put in “Maintenance Mode”, disconnected from the cluster, removed from the cluster or when you do a reconfigure for HA.If all primary hosts fail simultaneously no HA initiated restart of the VMs will take place. HA needs at least one primary host to restart VMs. This is why you can only take four host failures in account when configuring the “host failures” HA admission control policy.

13. How to do P2V using Vmware Converter and what are the ports requirement for P2V?
14. How to migrate(P2V) a SQL server without any downtime using vmware converter?
Ans.
For P2V of a SQL server, my practice has been to convert the system drive (C:\) of the source system and utilize one of two recovery strategies. The first is to create the data volume of the SQL server on the destination virtual machine initially empty, then restore a SQL backup onto the new, empty system. While you can convert the SQL database server's data volumes with the SQL Server service stopped, it is usually cleaner to have an absolutely consistent database on the virtual machine. This can be done by restoring from a SQL backup or an agent-based backup if you are using a tool that does this type of protection.

Extra Points-http://virtualizationreview.com/blogs/everyday-virtualization/2010/03/~/media/ECG/vrt/100316vr_van01.ashx
15. List of check performed before and after P2V process?
16. List of issues faced at the time of P2V?
17. What is Distributed switch (vDS)?
Ans.
Functions as a single switch that spans across all associated hosts.  This allows virtual machines to maintain consistency in regards to their network connection as the vMotion and move from host to host.  dvSwitches have mostly the same characteristics of a Standard switch in the way that they can connect VMs to VMs as well as VMs to external networks.  dvSwitches require Enterprise Plus licensing, and allow you to above and beyond some capabilities of the standard switch with options to use netflow, port mirroring and private VLANs.

18. Difference between Distributed switch (vDS) and Cisco Nexus 1000v switch and standard switch (vSS)?
Ans.

19. If the vCenter server is down, will Distributed switch (vDS) work?
Ans.
Yes, VM communication will work with external world.

20. What is the requirements for installing vCenter?
21. How much minimum RAM and space need for vCenter Installation?
Ans.

22. Role of VPXA client and working?
Ans.
The VirtualCenter Agent, also referred to as vpxa or the vmware-vpxa service, is what allows a VirtualCenter Server to connect to a ESX host. Specifically, vpxa is the communication conduit to the hostd, which in turn communicates to the ESX kernel.

Extra Points- Troubleshooting the vCenter Server Agent when it does not start (1006128)

23. Difference between ESX and ESXi?
Ans.

24. Difference between ESX3.5, ESX4 and ESXi 5?
25. Licensing in vSphere 5 and different types of licenses and their difference?
Ans.


26. Different method to upgrade ESX server?
27. What is host profile?
Ans.
Host Profiles helps us to  maintains consistent configuration across the datacenter by using Host Profiles policies and also eliminates Manual host configuration/ Host Profile Policies captures the blue print of well known configured  ESX host in environment and it also acts a reference host to configure other hosts in environment.  These policies capture the blueprint of a known, validated reference host configuration which is also called as "Golden Image". The blue print contains the information about the networking, storage, security and other settings.

28. What is FT, requirement and how to configure FT and how FT works?
Ans.
FT provides a higher level of protection by making VMs continuously available in the event of a HOST FAILURE (FT will not protect if the OS blue screens or an application fails on the primary VM, the secondary VM will do the same).  FT keeps the states of a primary and secondary VM identical by using VMware vLockstep technology.  The vLockstep technology replays all instructions from the primary VM on the secondary.  If the host running the primary VM fails, the secondary becomes the new primary, and a new secondary is created.  This will occur even if vCenter is not available.

FT Requirements

Cluster Requirements

  • Host Certificate checking must be enabled
  • At least 2 FT-certified hosts running the same FT version or host build number.
  • Hosts need access to the same storage
  • FT Logging and VMotion Networking need to be configured.
  • HA must be enabled on the cluster.  If it isn't you will not be able to power on an FT machine or add a host running an FT machine already to the cluster.

Host Requirements

  • Must contain processors from the FT-compatible processor group.  Highly recommended that CPUs are also compatible with one another.
  • Must be licensed for FT (Enterprise or Enterprise Plus)
  • Must be certified for FT (HCL).
  • BIOS must have Hardware Virtualization (HV) enabled.

VM Requirements

  • Virtual disks must either be in virtual RDM mode or VMDK files (no physical RDM). The disk must also be in thick format.
  • VM files must be stored on shared storage (FC, FCOE, iSCSI, NFS, NAS).
  • Cannot have more than one cpu.
  • Must be running on Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, Vista, 2003, XP, 2000, NT 4, All Linux supported by ESX, Netware, solaris 10, and FreeBSD ( there are some limitations on processors though, so check them out).


29. How to increase the size of Hard disk in win 2008 and win 2003?
30. What is Hot CPU / Add RAM?
Ans.
VMware vSphere's hot-add RAM and hot-plug CPU functions allow you to add additional virtual hardware to running virtual machines. The benefit of being able to do this is the ability to provide more resources to your machines without bringing servers down to add the additional resources. Simply put, this is additional capacity without downtime.


31. How hot CPU/RAM works of 2008 and 2003 whether we need a reboot for applying hot CPU/add RAM?
Ans.
32. What is PSA?
Ans.
To manage storage multipathing, ESX/ESXi uses a special VMkernel layer, Pluggable Storage Architecture (PSA). The PSA is an open modular framework that coordinates the simultaneous operation of multiple multipathing plugins (MPPs). PSA is a collection of VMkernel APIs that allow third party hardware vendors to insert code directly into the ESX storage I/O path. This allows 3rd party software developers to design their own load balancing techniques and failover mechanisms for particular storage array. The PSA coordinates the operation of the NMP and any additional 3rd party MPP.

33. What is VAAI?
Ans.
vStorage APIs for Array Integration is a feature introduced in ESXi/ESX 4.1 that provides hardware acceleration functionality. It enables your host to offload specific virtual machine and storage management operations to compliant storage hardware. With the storage hardware assistance, your host performs these operations faster and consumes less CPU, memory, and storage fabric bandwidth.
Extra Points-Frequently Asked Questions for vStorage APIs for Array Integration (1021976)

34. SCSI reservation?
Ans.
ESX uses a mechanism of "locking" called "scsi reservation" to share luns between ESX hosts. These "reservations" are non-persistent and are released when they require activity is completed. The Service Console regularly monitors the luns and checks for an "reservations" that have aged to old. The ESX host will then try releasing the lock. If however another application running from the Service Console is using the lun, it can immediately reclaim the "lun" or place another "reservation". Thus, if 3rd party applications are not design to release their locks, we see a continuous flood of heartbeat reclaiming events in the logs.SCSI reservations are needed to prevent any data corruption in environment where LUNs are shared between many hosts.Every time a host tries to update the VMFS metadata it needs to put SCSI reservation on it.

35. SCSI reservation has been removed in vSphere 5?
Ans.
Yes/No, The Atomic Test and Set (ATS) primitive is used for locking on Virtual Machine File System (VMFS) datastores for VMware vSphere Storage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) compatible storage arrays. It is far superior to the SCSI Reservation locking technique.

36. How data integrity is achieved in vSphere 5?
Ans.
Integrity checks verify and maintain data integrity on the deduplication store. The output of an integrity check 
is a checkpoint. By default, VDP creates an integrity check every day during the maintenance window. In 

addition, you can start the integrity check manually.

37. HA difference between vSphere 4 and vSphere 5?
Ans.
With vSphere 5.0 comes a new HA architecture. HA has been rewritten from the ground up to shed some of those constraints that were enforced by AAM. HA as part of 5.0, also referred to as FDM (fault domain manager), introduces less complexity and higher resiliency.no more primary/secondary node concept as stated but a master/slave concept with an automated election process.the complete agent as been rewritten and the dependency on VPXA has been removed. HA talks directly to hostd instead of using a translator to talk to VPXA with vSphere 4.1 and prior. FDM agent also communicates with vCenter and vCenter with the FDM agent. As of vSphere 5.0, HA leverages vCenter to retrieve information about the status of virtual machines and vCenter is used to display the protection status of virtual machines. On top of that, vCenter is responsible for the protection and unprotection of virtual machines. This not only applies to user initiated power-offs or power-ons of virtual machines, but also in the case where an ESXi host is disconnected from vCenter at which point vCenter will request the master HA agent to unprotect the affected virtual machines. two minor chances but huge improvements when it comes to managing/troubleshooting HA which I want to point out:
  • No dependency on DNS
  • Syslog functionality
vSphere 4.1 and prior uses an agent called “AAM” aka Legato Automated Availability Management. A VMware HA Cluster consists of nodes, primary and secondary nodes. Primary nodes hold cluster settings and all “node states” which are synchronized between primaries. Node states hold for instance resource usage information. In case that vCenter is not available the primary nodes will have a rough estimate of the resource occupation and can take this into account when a fail-over needs to occur. Secondary nodes send their state info to the primary nodes. Nodes send a heartbeat to each other, which is the mechanism to detect possible outages. Primary nodes send heartbeats to primary nodes and secondary nodes. Secondary nodes send their heartbeats to primary nodes only. Nodes send out these heartbeats every second by default. The first 5 hosts that join the VMware HA cluster are automatically selected as primary nodes.  All the others are automatically selected as secondary nodes. When you do a reconfigure for HA the primary nodes and secondary nodes are selected again, this is at random.
Extra Points-http://www.yellow-bricks.com/vmware-high-availability-deepdiv/

38. What is RDM and How many types of RDM exists?
Ans.
RDM is a mapping file in a separate VMFS volume that acts as a proxy for a raw physical storage device. The RDM allows a virtual machine to directly access and use the storage device. The RDM contains metadata for managing and redirecting disk access to the physical device.
The file gives you some of the advantages of direct access to a physical device while keeping some advantages of a virtual disk in VMFS. As a result, it merges VMFS manageability with raw device access.

RDMs can be described in terms such as mapping a raw device into a datastore, mapping a system LUN, or mapping a disk file to a physical disk volume. All these terms refer to RDMs.
Two compatibility modes are available for RDMs:

  • Virtual compatibility mode allows an RDM to act exactly like a virtual disk file, including the use of snapshots.
  • Physical compatibility mode allows direct access of the SCSI device for those applications that need lower level control.


39. Why we use VLAN ID 4095?
Ans.
This particular VLAN ID is only to be used for “Virtual Guest Tagging” (VGT). It basically means that the VLAN ID is stripped off at the Guest OS layer and not at the portgroup layer. In other words the VLAN trunk(multiple VLANs on a single wire) is extended to the virtual machine and the virtual machine will need to deal with it.

There aren’t many use cases any more. In the past it was used to increase the number of VLANs for a VM. The limit of 4 NICs for VI3 meant a maximum of 4 portgroups / VLANs per VM. However with vSphere the maximum amount of NICs went up to 10 and as such the amount of VLANs for a single VM also went up to 10.

40. What is VGT?
Ans. VLAN configuration on virtual switches, physical switches, and virtual machines (1003806)
Virtual Guest Tagging (VGT)

  • All VLAN tagging is performed by the virtual machine.
  • You must install an 802.1Q VLAN trunking driver inside the virtual machine.
  • VLAN tags are preserved between the virtual machine networking stack and external switch when frames are passed to/from virtual switches.
  • Physical switch ports are set to trunk port.
41. vMotion does not check vSwitch port availability? True or False?

42. How storage DRS works?
Ans.
VMware DRS aggregates computing capacity across a collection of servers into logical resource pools and intelligently allocates available resources among the virtual machines based on pre-defined rules that reflect business needs and changing priorities.VMware DRS allows users to define the rules and policies that decide how virtual machines share resources and how these resources are prioritized among multiple virtual machines.When a virtual machine experiences increased load, VMware DRS first evaluates its priority against the established resource allocation rules and policies, and if justified, allocates additional resources. Resources are allocated to the virtual machine by either migrating it to another server with more available resources or by making more “space” for it on the same server by migrating other virtual machines to different servers. The live migration of virtual machines to different physical servers is executed completely transparent to end-users through VMware VMotion.VMware DRS can be configured to operate in either automatic or manual mode. In automatic mode, VMware DRS determines the best possible distribution of virtual machines among different physical servers and automatically migrates virtual machines to the most appropriate physical servers. In manual mode, VMware DRS provides a recommendation for optimal placement of virtual machines, and leaves it to the system administrator to decide whether to make the change.

43. Different types of load balancing policy at the vSwitch?
Ans.
In a vSwitch, load balancing policies describe the different techniques that will be used for distributing the network traffic from all the virtual machines that are connected to the vSwitch and its subordinate Port Groups across the physical NICs associated with the vSwitch. There are several options available for load balancing as shown below:

  1. Load Balancing Policies
  2. vSwitch Port Based (default)
  3. MAC Address Based
  4. IP Hash Based
  5. Explicit Failover Order


Extra Points-http://kensvirtualreality.wordpress.com/2009/04/05/the-great-vswitch-debate%E2%80%93part-3/

44. What is beacon probing?
Ans.
Beacon Probing – this sends a probe down the line and can detect upstream failures past the initial port is connected to.  Useful in situations where there is no physical connection to the first switch down the line such as configurations like hp c-class blades.

45. Different security policies at the vSwitch?
Ans.
vSS and vDS Security Policies include
  • Promiscuous Mode (Reject by Default) – Allows a VM to see all traffic flowing through the switch, even that which is not destined for that VM.
  • MAC Address Changes (Accept by Default) – Can block or allow traffic destined to a VM which has had it's effective MAC Address changed.  May need to change the effective MAC address on a VM in order to support Microsoft NLB.
  • Forged Transmits (Accept by Default)  - Essentially the same as MAC Address Changes except dealing with traffic being transmitted by the VM.
46. If we don't have VMware tool on VM, can we take snapshot? Explain?
Ans.
Without VMware tools install we can take snaptshot. but snapshot with quiesce the virtual machine files, verify that the virtual machine is powered on and that VMware Tools is installed.

47. What happened in the background if we commit the snapshot?
48. How many log files get created in VM folder and what would be there sequence?
Ans.

49. Once you take snapshot, How much MB delta file get created in?
Ans.

50. What is Change Block Tracking (CBT)?
Ans.
Changed Block Tracking (CBT) is a VMware feature that helps perform incremental backups. VMware Data Recovery uses this technology and so can developers of backup and recovery software.

Virtual machines running on ESX/ESXi hosts can track disk sectors that have changed. This feature is called Changed Block Tracking (CBT). On many file systems, CBT identifies the disk sectors altered between two change set IDs. On VMFS partitions, CBT can also identify all the disk sectors that are in use.


Virtual disk block changes are tracked from outside virtual machines, in the virtualization layer. When software performs a backup, it can request transmission of only the blocks that changed since the last backup, or the blocks in use. The CBT feature can be accessed by third-party applications as part of the vSphere APIs for Data Protection (VADP). Applications call VADP to request that the VMkernel return blocks of data that have changed on a virtual disk since the last backup snapshot.

51. How you will troubleshoot different types of snapshot problems?
Ans.


52. How vMotion works?
Ans.
There are 3 underlying action happening in vMotion.
1)The entire state of a virtual machine is encapsulated by a set of files stored on shared storage such as Fibre Channel or iSCSI Storage Area Network (SAN) or Network Attached,Storage (NAS).VMware vStorage VMFS allows multiple ESX to access the same virtual machine files concurrently.

2)The active memory and precise execution state of the virtual machine is rapidly transferred over a high speed network, allowing the virtual machine to instantaneously switch from running on the source ESX host to the destination ESX host.VMotion keeps the transfer period imperceptible to users by keeping track of on-going memory transactions in a bitmap.Once the entire memory and system state has been copied over to the target ESX host, VMotion suspends the source virtual machine, copies the bitmap to the target ESX host, and resumes the virtual machine on the target ESX host.This entire process takes less than two seconds on a Gigabit Ethernet network.

3)The networks being used by the virtual machine are also virtualized by the underlying ESX host, ensuring that even after the migration, the virtual machine network identity and network connections are preserved. VMotion manages the virtual MAC address as part of the process. Once the destination machine is activated, VMotion pings the network router to ensure that it is aware of the new physical location of the virtual MAC address.

53. What is Jumbo Frames and its requirements?
Ans.
Jumbo Frames allow a host to send larger frames (up to 9k) out on the network, but must be configured all throughout the network.  Jumbo Frames is enabled on the vSS and vDS by simply setting the Max MTU to 9000 on the port groups.
Inside the VM you must install the VMXNET 3 adapter and enabled Jumbo Frames from within the OS itself.

54. Link aggregation and its requirements?
55. Snapshot implementation has been changed in vsphere 5. What are the changes?
56. Snapshot files are visible in snapshot manager but they are visible in console.  How you will delete these snapshot files?
57. How you will troubleshoot locked file issues?
Ans. 
A running virtual machine creates lock files to prevent consistency problems on virtual disks. If the virtual machine did not use locks, multiple virtual machines might read and write to the disk, causing data corruption.


Lock files are always created in the same directory as the .vmdk files.
Investigating hosted virtual machine lock files (1003857)
Investigating virtual machine file locks on ESXi/ESX (10051)

58. One user is complaining that his server is working very slow. How you will troubleshoot this issue?
59. What is storage I/O control (SIOC)?
Ans.
Storage I/O Control is a method that VMware can manage and prioritize I/O for virtual machines. These VMs are typically contained within a vSphere cluster and use a shared datastore. It performs this function by using similar concepts of shares and limits that you would be familiar with from CPU and memory that has been around in vSphere for years. VMware can then dynamically allocate I/O across the nodes in a vSphere cluster. You will need to own the Enterprise Plus licensing level to take advantage of SIOC.

Extra Points-how SIOC calculates latency across all hosts

60. What is network I/O control (NIOC)?
Ans.
Network resource pools determine the bandwidth that different network traffic types are given on a vSphere distributed switch.When network I/O control is enabled, distributed switch traffic is divided into the following predefined network resource pools: Fault Tolerance traffic, iSCSI traffic, vMotion traffic, management traffic, vSphere Replication (VR) traffic, NFS traffic, and virtual machine traffic.

Extra Points-NIOC Old and New Architecture

61. One user is not able to take the RDP of a vCenter but the vCenter is pinging. How will you resolve the issue?
Ans.
After verifying the procedures in the environment overview and establishing connectivity to the customers network via vpn, rdp, or another remote support app try the following:

Ping the vcenter server to verify it is online, after a successful ping test try to use the vSphere Client to connect to the Virtual Center server. If this succeeds use the GUI client to check to see if there are errors or alarms triggered. Normally there are yellow or red icons to indicate this.
If you can ping the vcenter server but cannot connect to it with the vSphere Client try using RDP to login to the server. Sometimes there are problems with SQL server not starting quickly enough which causes the Virtual Center Server service to not start. If this is the case go into the MS Windows Services control panel and try to manually start the VMware Virtual Center Server service.
VIM_CMD notes

vim_cmd vmsvc/power.off

vim_cmd vmsvc/power.shutdown

vim_cmd vmsvc/getallvms

When a virtual machine appears as “Invalid”, but you can still RDP to the server…


Log into the host esx/esxi server and remove the VM from inventory, then browse the datastore and readd it back to inventory and everything should be ok.

62. The server is showing black screen in vSphere client. How will you analyze the issue?
63. What are affinity and anti affinity rules and what are other rule apart from these two rules in vSphere 5?
Ans.
You can control the placement of virtual machines on hosts within a cluster by using affinity rules.
You can create two types of rules.

Used to specify affinity or anti-affinity between a group of virtual machines and a group of hosts. An affinity rule specifies that the members of a selected virtual machine DRS group can or must run on the members of a specific host DRS group. An anti-affinity rule specifies that the members of a selected virtual machine DRS group cannot run on the members of a specific host DRS group.
See VM-Host Affinity Rules for information about creating and using this type of rule.

Used to specify affinity or anti-affinity between individual virtual machines. A rule specifying affinity causes DRS to try to keep the specified virtual machines together on the same host, for example, for performance reasons. With an anti-affinity rule, DRS tries to keep the specified virtual machines apart, for example, so that when a problem occurs with one host, you do not lose both virtual machines.


When you add or edit an affinity rule, and the cluster's current state is in violation of the rule, the system continues to operate and tries to correct the violation. For manual and partially automated DRS clusters, migration recommendations based on rule fulfillment and load balancing are presented for approval. You are not required to fulfill the rules, but the corresponding recommendations remain until the rules are fulfilled.

64. While powering on a VM, you are getting different errors you should know how to troubleshoot these kind of errors?
65. What is VMware cloud director and why it is used?
Ans.
VCloud Director (vCD) is VMware Inc.'s cloud computing management tool. It manages Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) architectures by monitoring and controlling various cloud-computing components, such as security, virtual machine (VM) provisioning, billing and self-service access. It focuses on private and hybrid cloud-computing infrastructures.

VCloud Director doesn't provide a standalone cloud infrastructure. Rather, a vCD setup requires additional tools, such as an Oracle database and 64-bit Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) 5. And for advanced vCloud Director features, users must turn to several products and vendors:

  1. VShield Edge for security
  2. HyTrust Inc.'s Cloud Control for authentication federation
  3. Zenoss Inc. for advanced monitoring and reporting
  4. Aria System's Inc, which supplies billing management software.

66. What is Vshield and why it is used?
Ans.
VMware vShield App is a hypervisor-based application-aware firewall solution for virtual datacenters. vShield App plugs directly into VMware vSphere to protect against internal network-based threats and reduce the risk of policy violations  within the corporate security perimeter using application-aware firewalling with deep packet inspection and connection control based on source and destination IP addresses.

67. What is VMware Data Recovery(VDR)?
Ans.
VMware Data Recovery is a simple-to-deploy backup and recovery solution that businesses should consider using when they virtualize their infrastructure to provide the first line of data protection for their virtual environment.
VMware Data Recovery enables:
  • Full image backup of  virtual machines.
  • Full and incremental recovery of virtual machines plus recovery of individual files and directories.
VMware Data Recovery is composed of three main components: 
1) The user interface plug-in for VMware vCenter Server
2) The VMware Data Recovery virtual appliance that manages the backup and recovery process
3) The de-duplicated destination storage.  

68. What is the limitations of FC and iSCSI Datastore in VDR?
Ans.


69. How to do integrity check in VDR?
70. How you will disable ballooning in a VM?
Ans.
Disabling ballooning via the vSphere Client
To set the maximum balloon size to zero:

  • Using the vSphere Client, connect to the vCenter Server or the ESXi/ESX host where the virtual machine resides.
  • Log into the ESXi/ESX host as a user with administrative rights.
  • Shut down the virtual machine.
  • Right-click the virtual machine listed on the Inventory panel and click Edit Settings.
  • Click the Options tab, then under Advanced, click General.
  • Click Configuration Parameters.
  • Click Add row and add the parameter sched.mem.maxmemctl in the text box.
  • Click on the row next to it and add 0 in the text box.
  • Click OK to save changes.

Disabling ballooning via the Windows registry
To disable ballooning on the virtual machine:

  • Log into the guest OS.
  • Click Start > Run, type regedit, and press Enter. The Registry Editor window opens.
  • Navigate to: \HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\services\VMMEMCTL
  • Change the Start key from 2 to 4.
  • Save the setting and restart the guest OS.

Disabling ballooning via VMware Tools uninstallation/reinstallation

  • Uninstall VMware Tools from the guest OS.
  • Reinstall VMware Tools using the Custom Settings option, and deselect the Memory Control Drivers.


71. What type of replication we should use while doing P2V (volume based or file based)?
Ans.
Volume Based

72. Does RDM format the LUN in VMDK or not or it create pointer file?
Ans.
It Creates a Pointer File.

73. Unable to start virtual center service what to troubleshoot and how?
74. VM is responding very slow. how to troubleshoot (like CPU contention, Storage latency, Memory issue.)?
75. We have taken snapshot and revert to the snapshot . now what will happen to existing snapshot , will it remove or will it exist?
Ans.

76. How to enable Paravirtualization in Disk and Network?
Ans. 
Installing VMware tools in guest operating system enable disk and network paravirtualization drivers.

77. How to check the storage, cpu, memory or disk related problem through ESXtop?
78. On Path Selection Policy (PSP) like fixed, MRU, RR. how it works in background?
Ans.

79. How to make vCenter Highly-Available?
Ans.
Installing vCenter Heartbeat software will make vCenter server Highly-Available.

80. What is Auto Deploy?
Ans.
vSphere Auto Deploy can provision hundreds of physical hosts with ESXi software. You can specify the image to deploy and the hosts to provision with the image. Optionally, you can specify host profiles to apply to the hosts, and a vCenter Server folder or cluster for each host.

When a physical host set up for Auto Deploy is turned on, Auto Deploy uses a PXE boot infrastructure in conjunction with vSphere host profiles to provision and customize that host. No state is stored on the host itself. Instead, the Auto Deploy server manages state information for each host


Auto Deploy stores the information for the ESXi hosts to be provisioned in different locations. Information about the location of image profiles and host profiles is initially specified in the rules that map machines to image profiles and host profiles. When a host boots for the first time, the vCenter Server system creates a corresponding host object and stores the information in the database. 

http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=2005131
Extra Points-http://blog.mwpreston.net/2013/11/14/8-weeks-of-vcap-auto-deploy/

81. What is image builder?
Ans.
The ESXi Image Builder CLI is a set of PowerCLI cmdlets that you can use to manage vSphere image profiles and VIB packages, such as driver VIBs and update VIBs. You can also use Image Builder cmdlets to export an image profile to an ISO or offline depot ZIP file that you can use to install ESXi with a customized set of updates, patches, and drivers.


82. What is difference between template and clone? 
Ans.
A clone is a copy of a VM whereas a template is a master copy of a VM used to create many clones.
Cloning allows you to create a copy of the entire VM including its hardware, settings, installed software, etc. This can certainly save you time if you need to duplicate a VM.  If this needs to be done frequently, its probably a the best idea to turn it into a template.  This way the VM stays protected as templates cannot be powered on or edited.  By converting to a template you proved  a more secure way of preserving a VM config that you would like to deploy many times.
Extra Points-http://blog.mwpreston.net/vcp-5/vcp-5-objective-4-3-manage-virtual-machine-clones-and-templates/

83. Differentiate between static port binding and ephemeral port?
Ans.
Static binding

When you connect a virtual machine to a port group configured with static binding, a port is immediately assigned and reserved for it, guaranteeing connectivity at all times. The port is disconnected only when the virtual machine is removed from the port group. You can connect a virtual machine to a static-binding port group only through vCenter Server.
Note: Static binding is the default setting, recommended for general use.

Ephemeral binding

In a port group configured with ephemeral binding, a port is created and assigned to a virtual machine by the host when the virtual machine is powered on and its NIC is in a connected state. The port is deleted when the virtual machine is powered off or the virtual machine's NIC is disconnected.

You can assign a virtual machine to a distributed port group with ephemeral port binding on ESX/ESXi and vCenter, giving you the flexibility to manage virtual machine connections through the host when vCenter is down. Although only ephemeral binding allows you to modify virtual machine network connections when vCenter is down, network traffic is unaffected by vCenter failure regardless of port binding type.
Note: Ephemeral port groups should be used only for recovery purposes when you want to provision ports directly on host bypassing vCenter Server, not for any other case.

84. How many number of snapshot we can take?
Ans.
The maximum supported amount of snapshots in a chain is 32. However, VMware recommends that you use only 2-3 snapshots in a chain.

85. Explain DAVG, QAVG, KAVG and GAVG? what is the relation between them?
Ans.


86. How many displays ESXtop support?
Ans.
Changing views/displays is easy type the following keys for the associated views:
c = cpu
m = memory
n = network
i = interrupts
d = disk adapter
u = disk device (includes NFS as of 4.0 Update 2)
v = disk VM

p = power states

87. What is the difference between ESXtop and rESXtop?
Ans.
The resxtop and esxtop command-line utilities provide a detailed look at how ESX/ESXi uses resources in real time. You can start either utility in one of three modes: interactive (default), batch, or replay.

The fundamental difference between resxtop and esxtop is that you can use resxtop remotely, whereas you can start esxtop only through the service console of a local ESX host.

88. Differentiate between VMware HW version 7 and 10?
Ans.
Features of Virtual Machine Hardware Version 10

  • Enablement for new CPU Architectures
  • LSI SAS support for  Oracle Solaris 11 operating system
  • Support for New  type of advanced host controller interface AHCI (Advanced  Host Controller Interface)
  • Virtual-SATA controller now supports both virtual disks and CD-ROM devices.
  • Support upto 4 SATA controllers with 30 devices per controller with total of 120 devices (was limit of 60 in vSPhere 5.1)


http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1014006

89. ESXi falls in which type of hypervisor category and why?
Ans.
Type 1 hypervisor because it run in hardware ring 0.


90. Differentiate between VMXnet3 and e1000 driver?
Ans.
VMXNET 3: The VMXNET 3 adapter is the next generation of a paravirtualized NIC designed for performance, and is not related to VMXNET or VMXNET 2. It offers all the features available in VMXNET 2, and adds several new features like multiqueue support (also known as Receive Side Scaling in Windows), IPv6 offloads, and MSI/MSI-X interrupt delivery. For information about the performance of VMXNET 3, see Performance Evaluation of VMXNET3 Virtual Network Device. Because operating system vendors do not provide built-in drivers for this card, you must install VMware Tools to have a driver for the VMXNET 3 network adapter available.VMXNET 3 is supported only for virtual machines version 7

E1000: An emulated version of the Intel 82545EM Gigabit Ethernet NIC. A driver for this NIC is not included with all guest operating systems. Typically Linux versions 2.4.19 and later, Windows XP Professional x64 Edition and later, and Windows Server 2003 (32-bit) and later include the E1000 driver.
Note: E1000 does not support jumbo frames prior to ESXi/ESX 4.1.

91. How to differentiate between Software and Hardware iSCSI HBA?
Ans.
Software iSCSI Adapter
A software iSCSI adapter is a VMware code built into the VMkernel. It allows your host to connect to the iSCSI storage device through standard network adapters. The software iSCSI adapter handles iSCSI processing while communicating with the network adapter. With the software iSCSI adapter, you can use iSCSI technology without purchasing specialized hardware.

Hardware iSCSI Adapter
A hardware iSCSI adapter is a third-party adapter that offloads iSCSI and network processing from your host. Hardware iSCSI adapters are divided into categories.

1)Dependent Hardware iSCSI Adapter
Depends on VMware networking, and iSCSI configuration and management interfaces provided by VMware.

2)Independent Hardware iSCSI Adapter

Implements its own networking and iSCSI configuration and management interfaces.

92. In which case we prefer vSphere VI Client over New vSphere Web client?
Ans.
For Site Recovery Manager and vSphere Update Manager, we prefer vSphere VI Client over web client.

93. What is VMware vSAN?
Ans.
The first thing to understand is that the name is a bit of a misnomer. VSAN has got nothing to do with SAN in the traditional sense. Instead it leverages the local storage from a number of ESXi hosts which are part of a cluster. A distributed vsan Datastore is then created leveraging the local storage from each of the ESXi hosts. This can then be used for VM placement, and of course supports a range of core vSphere technologies like vMotion, DRS & vSphere HA.

Virtual SAN is fully integrated with vSphere. It is an object based storage system and a platform for VM Storage Policies that aims to simplify virtual machine storage placement decisions for vSphere administrators. Its goal is to provides both high availability as well as scale-out storage functionality. It can also be thought of in the context of quality of service (QoS) in so far as VM Storage Policies can be created which defined the level of performance and availability required on a per virtual machine basis.


VSAN can be thought of as both a converged platform (of both compute and storage) as well as hybrid storage solution (since it leverages both SSDs and traditional spinning disks).

94. What is Software Defined Networking (SDN)?
Ans.
Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to networking in which control is decoupled from hardware and given to a software application called a controller.

The goal of SDN is to allow network engineers and administrators respond quickly to changing business requirements. In a software-defined network, a network administrator can shape traffic from a centralized control console without having to touch individual switches. The administrator can change any network switch's rules when necessary -- prioritizing, de-prioritizing or even blocking specific types of packets with a very granular level of control. This is especially helpful in a cloud computing multi-tenant architecture because it allows the administrator to manage traffic loads in a flexible and more efficient manner. Essentially, this allows the administrator to use less expensive, commodity switches and have more control over network traffic flow than ever before.

95. DPM is dependent on which feature?
Ans.
HA and DRS

96. Can HA work without vCenter server?
Ans.
YES

97. What is Shares and how it is being calculated?
Ans.
Shares specify the relative importance of a virtual machine (or resource pool). If a virtual machine has twice as many shares of a resource as another virtual machine, it is entitled to consume twice as much of that resource when these two virtual machines are competing for resources.
Shares are typically specified as High, Normal, or Low and these values specify share values with a 4:2:1 ratio, respectively. You can also select Custom to assign a specific number of shares (which expresses a proportional weight) to each virtual machine.
Specifying shares makes sense only with regard to sibling virtual machines or resource pools, that is, virtual machines or resource pools with the same parent in the resource pool hierarchy. Siblings share resources according to their relative share values, bounded by the reservation and limit. When you assign shares to a virtual machine, you always specify the priority for that virtual machine relative to other powered-on virtual machines.

Share Values shows the default CPU and memory share values for a virtual machine. For resource pools, the default CPU and memory share values are the same, but must be multiplied as if the resource pool were a virtual machine with four VCPUs and 16 GB of memory.

98. What is vMA?
Ans.
The vSphere Management Assistant (vMA) allows administrators and developers to run scripts and agents to manage ESXi hosts and vCenter Server systems. vMA is a virtual machine that includes prepackaged software, a logging component, and an authentication component that supports non-interactive login.
99. Define OVF?
Ans.
Open Virtualization Format (OVF) is an open standard for packaging and distributing virtual appliances or more generally software to be run in virtual machines.

The standard describes an "open, secure, portable, efficient and extensible format for the packaging and distribution of software to be run in virtual machines". The OVF standard is not tied to any particular hypervisor or processor architecture. The unit of packaging and distribution is a so-called OVF Package which may contain one or more virtual systems each of which can be deployed to a virtual machine.

100. What is Virtual Appliance? 
Ans.
Virtual appliances are ready-to-run virtual machines packaged with an operating system and software application. These self-contained appliances make it simpler to acquire, deploy and manage applications by eliminating underlying hardware and operating system dependencies.


However, I was able to accumulate only 100 questions, but VMware is not at all limited to above questionnaire. It is so vast and ever expanding, so please take above set of interview questions as an example ONLY and don't limit you're knowledge to above mentioned questions. 

Disclaimer- Don't held me responsible, if you fail any vmware interview, after reading above questions. Also, refer VMware Technical Documentation for updated and correct information.